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So aR1ans were living near the North Caucases yet the R1a levels in the Caucuses are almost non-existent, Theres a little spike in levels in and around Circassia, but not much really.
My question is , Why did the aR1ans avoid the Caucuses which where within walking distances away from their original homeland, yet they made it all the way to Mongolia/China?
I came to several conclusions:
1. They didn't like Caucasian wogs
2. AR1an chariots/wagons couldn't function in the Caucas highlands
3. The Caucasians were hostile and killed any aR1ans who came to close
The real question for R1a1a is how did it become so frequent over such a large area in Eurasia, not why is it lower in other areas (like western Europe and parts of the near east).
The real question for R1a1a is how did it become so frequent over such a large area in Eurasia, not why is it lower in other areas (like western Europe and parts of the near east).
Could just be a coincidence, that R1a males for whatever reason managed to achieve a reproductive success that gave off more males than females—and their R1a descendants had sons with daughters whose fathers were I1/J1 etcetera.
That's why these haplogroup frequencies shouldn't bee taken too literally, we don't know how the frequencies were 3,000 years ago. R1a may have been rare at the time, but managed to expand rapidly through the taming of the horse.
Last edited by EliasAlucard; 2009-10-29 at 19:55.
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Anatolian Urhemait supporters are mostly butthurt Meds.
For the lulz:
Originally Posted by drgs
Poland is a misunderstanding. It is a country which lies on the frontier between western and slavic world, and which combines elements of both.
In fact, they are not even the Europeans in strict sense, meaning European as in bearing the responsibility and understanding of European interests. Poland has always been an subordinate country, on one side sucking German dick, on the other side -- Russian one, some kind of "novice" europeans, who are full of inferiority complexes, hysteria and obsessity neuroses. This is also true for all Baltic countries
They have become rulling class over native non-IE - azianic - populations, their proportions we're allways small there, so there's no reason for any other, higher frequencies. Anyway, we cannot talk about Aryans in Caucasus (I mentioned generally early-IE, including II populations), because Aryans were living in completly diffrent place (eastern Parthia as far as I remember).
Thats not anomaly at all, nothing really suprising from historical point of view - thing like that happened numerous of times, not only in IE populations (ie. Bulgarians, Spaniards (partly) etc.).
So aR1ans were living near the North Caucases yet the R1a levels in the Caucuses are almost non-existent, Theres a little spike in levels in and around Circassia, but not much really.
My question is , Why did the aR1ans avoid the Caucuses which where within walking distances away from their original homeland, yet they made it all the way to Mongolia/China?
I came to several conclusions:
1. They didn't like Caucasian wogs
2. AR1an chariots/wagons couldn't function in the Caucas highlands
3. The Caucasians were hostile and killed any aR1ans who came to close
The inaccessible Caucasus was a good place to hide from the R1a1 storm raging everywhere else.
Could just be a coincidence, that R1a males for whatever reason managed to achieve a reproductive success that gave off more males than femalesand their R1a descendants had sons with daughters whose fathers were I1/J1 etcetera.
That's why these haplogroup frequencies shouldn't bee taken too literally, we don't know how the frequencies were 3,000 years ago. R1a may have been rare at the time, but managed to expand rapidly through the taming of the horse.
I think the frequency of R1a1a 3,000 years ago would be high, but about 7,000 years it was just one family where the direct male off-springs have survived to the present day. Similar sort of effects are seen in other haplogroups including I1.
The main difference between R1a1a and the rest is the huge geographic spread and the high frequencies.
If you exclude the R1a1a group, R1a is a very "small" group.
btw. wasn't R1a (just R1a, without aditional numbers/letters) found only in a very few inviduals (about modern people)?
R1a today would be known as L62*. This has never been tested in any scientific study. There are a few people who are L62*, mostly of British decent. Old R1a* (now R1a1*) defined by SRY1532.2* has been observed in low frequency in several studies.
R1a today would be known as L62*. This has never been tested in any scientific study. There are a few people who are L62*, mostly of British decent. Old R1a* (now R1a1*) defined by SRY1532.2* has been observed in low frequency in several studies.
I'm assuming you mean in commercial databases and not scientific studies?
So have you looked at Adriano's spreadsheet lately? If so, is there anything interesting there in regards to R1a1a*, or are we all exactly the same?
R1a anomalies
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Originally Posted by Paul_Johnsen
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