Is there actually a correlation?
The fact that this poster thinks there ia lot of ydna I in Iran or Kurdistan is laughable. One controversial study showed I. That study was pretty much wrong. Ydna I is almost nonexistant in iran and Kurdistan. I don't know what caused this poster to say it is present in Pakistan (I have heard similar claims about the Kalash) but I don't think evenone sample has been found and the claim was even more laughable than it existing in Kurdistan or Iran.
Plus the frequency of mtdna I is 2% among Assyrians, 5 % among Azeris and 4% among Armenians and close to 9% among Pakistani Sindhis. All of these populations have no I.
So where is this theory of correlation coming from? I have seen it on numerous forums and sites.