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Thread: Should Québec and French west indies be considered part of Latin America ?2622 days old

  1. #11
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    Knight Templar El Andullero's Avatar
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    Quote Originally Posted by Padre Organtino View Post
    It's the contrary from my experience. The different between Quebecois and French is probably even greater than between WASPS and English/Welsh/Scottish.
    They have more or less the same time away from the "mother country" than the Haitians have (although in the case of the Quebecois, the separation was forced on them). But I think the linguistical distance between Quebecois and standard French is smaller than the one of the latter with Kreyol Aysyen.
    Last edited by El Andullero; 2012-08-12 at 22:25.

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  4. #12
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    "Latin" has always been a linguistic term. That's why France, Italy and Spain have always been considered Latin countries, in spite of the cultural and racial differences among them. During the last two decades, Americans started to use the term wrongly, as if it were synonymous of Mexican (Mexicans are a Latin nation, but not the only Latin nation). This monstrous use of the word somehow was adopted by Europeans and now even by South Americans, which is sad and outrageous. I don't like non-native speakers of my language to deform my language. Therefore, "Latin" should be what it always was: "a nation whose language derives from Latin". Under this CORRECT use of the word Quebec and other parts of America which speak French, must be considered Latin.
    Last edited by Crypto; 2012-08-12 at 23:31.

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    Then, Brittany and the Basque Country are not "latin lands". Brittany is celtic and the Basque Country is unknown, not even indoeuropean.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Cinderella View Post
    Then, Brittany and the Basque Country are not "latin lands". Brittany is celtic and the Basque Country is unknown, not even indoeuropean.
    I bet that in the Basque country Spanish is one of the official languages. I have met several Basques in my life and all of them spoke perfect Spanish.

    ---------- Post Merged at 23:37 ----------

    The original Latins were an Italian tribe inhabiting central and south-central Italy. Through conquest by their most populous city-state, Rome, the original Latins culturally "Romanized" or "Latinized" the rest of Italy. In this way the word "Latin" ceased to mean a particular people or ethnicity. Subsequently, other regions, particularly the European ones such as Spain, Portugal, Italy and France, became lastingly culturally "Latinized" by the Roman Empire. Thus, from an early stage in its history, when used as a label for various groups of people, the term "Latin" has had purely legal and cultural meanings, not ethnic.

    A millennium after the fall of the Western Roman Empire of which they were part, these European nations began spreading their Latin-derived languages and cultures around the world through their own empires, especially in the Americas. The meaning of the term "Latin" has thus been broadened from its ancient meaning to refer to a number of different peoples in Europe and in Latin America.

    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Latins
    Last edited by Crypto; 2012-08-12 at 23:49.

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    It's easier dividing Europe in Latin and Germanic countries than to do with the Americas, it appears. Reason: a continuum is running.
    "Political correctness is the (...) revenge of the (...) intolerant, (...) dunce upon all the liveliness in this world. It is no more than the (...) resort of minds (...) that, for them, a revival of Stalinism is preferable to the pain of a glimpse of self-it's the last sigh of the beast that Nietzsche identified as ressentiment."

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    Quote Originally Posted by Crypto View Post
    I bet that both in the Basque country Spanish is one of the official languages. I have met several Basques in my life and all of them spoke perfect Spanish.
    Well, I speak English too but I'm not an English as that's not my natural language...

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    Quote Originally Posted by Cinderella View Post
    Well, I speak English too but I'm not an English as that's not my natural language...
    Well, if Basques don't speak Spanish as a native language, then they are not Latin. However, I am sure that Basques can be considered native Spanish speakers. Only a native speaker of our language could master it like Unamuno did, for instance.

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    Quote Originally Posted by Cinderella View Post
    Well, I speak English too but I'm not an English as that's not my natural language...


    http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedi...skera_2001.svg
    Si no tiengo as armas prestas usi yo no doy a mida tendré muy bien mereçida a carraña mas salvatxe.

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    One can find it a pity that it's evolving northward and not southward.
    "Political correctness is the (...) revenge of the (...) intolerant, (...) dunce upon all the liveliness in this world. It is no more than the (...) resort of minds (...) that, for them, a revival of Stalinism is preferable to the pain of a glimpse of self-it's the last sigh of the beast that Nietzsche identified as ressentiment."

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    Quote Originally Posted by Danielion View Post
    One can find it a pity that it's evolving northward and not southward.
    if you're talking of euskera language, the difference is that it has been always there northward, but it desappeared time ago (centuries, nothing to do with franco) souhtward.

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