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Thread: Translation and Language Assistance — ARABIC 🇸🇾 🇪🇬 🇮🇶 🇾🇪 🇱🇧 🇶🇦 🇹🇳 🇲🇦 🇵🇸 🇸🇦1089 days old

  1. #81
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    Quote Originally Posted by NixYO View Post
    To some extent, yes, though "structure" admittedly is a poor choice of words, Persians as well as other illustrious individuals hailing from Iran and Central Asia indeed were overrepresented among the earliest grammarians and scholars of the Arabic language. In fact this observation can be extended to the scholarly environment of the early islamic period as a whole, including Islamic exegesis.

    So what the Arabic language does owe to Persian polymaths and linguists such as Sibawayh is the logical, almost mathematic nature of Arabic linguistics, without their contribution the language would otherwise be far more obscure and irregular.
    That being said, Arabic is a fairly conservative Semitic language (not the most conservative, as arab and muslim propagandists like to claim) which inherited its morphological and structural baggage from Proto-(Central-)Semitic, Arabic isn't a constructed language invented by a handful of scholars in some venerable Iranian institution or school


    Quote Originally Posted by MnM View Post
    Morocco is a western lapdog.
    Quote Originally Posted by NonFingo View Post
    Those Bronze Age samples are just red herrings to distract you from the actual arrivals of populations with Semitic ancestry. Don’t take the bait by focusing on the wrong samples, lol. He is passing off Bronze Age Levantines with no evidence of strong predynastic input, as “Semites“. This way, he can flip it around and say Proto-Semitic speakers and predynastics were more or less identical to the Bronze Age Levantines sampled so far.
    Quote Originally Posted by NonFingo View Post
    @Semitic Duwa

    Wonder what the resident Proto-Semite has to say about this. I thought unmixed Egyptians were supposed to be Abusir with less/zero Chl?

    In your view, does this prove you wrong, or is it just a coincidence () that M1 is absent in one of the three subsamples from Abusir, and rare overall?

    And don’t change your signature now, please. I’m looking forward to you looking more and more incompetent as more aDNA is published. Wish there was a way to speed this up. But the extra wait and seeing you with your pants down every day, kinda has its own appeal, too.

  2. The Following 3 Users Say Thank You to Semitic Duwa For This Useful Post:

    NixYO (2016-11-24), Targum (2016-11-24), voyager (2016-11-24)

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  4. #82
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    http://www.forumbiodiversity.com/sho...=1#post1273810
    Quote Originally Posted by SomaliSuldaan View Post
    Mozlem in Arabic means the evil one?? Looooool wtf are you alt right folks smoking?
    What does it mean?
    “And, furthermore, that some people have a sex life and others don’t just because some are more attractive than others. I wanted to acknowledge that if people don’t have a sex life, it’s not for some moral reason, it’s just because they’re ugly. Once you’ve said it, it sounds obvious, but I wanted to say it.” — Michel Houellebecq

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    What does «انا حرة» mean?
    “And, furthermore, that some people have a sex life and others don’t just because some are more attractive than others. I wanted to acknowledge that if people don’t have a sex life, it’s not for some moral reason, it’s just because they’re ugly. Once you’ve said it, it sounds obvious, but I wanted to say it.” — Michel Houellebecq

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    ^ I am free

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    Quote Originally Posted by dddcc View Post
    ...I made a trip to Morocco and noted that it was very hard for me to understand the Arabic dialect used in Casablanca and Ribat, though the Arabic of Fes, Marrakech and Tangiers were rather simple to understand...
    It's important to note that Morocco is extremely tribal, probably more so than any other northwest african country.

    The area you speak of, straddling Rabat-Sale-Kenitra and Casablanca-Settat, has strong hassani, chaoui, and zaeri influences for instance (that region underwent prominent koineisation stemming from external migratory patterns).

    Typically, koiné dialects usually hold prestige, casawi and r'bati dialects (known as ʕrobi/aurobi) are the inverse, they are generally viewed as harsh sounding, and are quite often associated with the urban underclass (usually those with a rural origin).

    Also in Morocco, outside of Fes, fessi speech is often stereotyped as being effeminite. E.g., my father who grew up speaking ʕrobi, often makes jokes at the expense of fessi masculinity. In particular, the untrilled emphasis for /r/ (ra) you speak of, is often associated with homosexuality in men within moroccan society.
    Last edited by Tsarcastic; 2017-02-14 at 23:10.

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    http://www.forumbiodiversity.com/sho...=1#post1321235
    Quote Originally Posted by Semitic Duwa View Post
    Thanks for the laugh ya 3arsa!
    Does the bold part refer to this?

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ars_(slang)
    Ars (Hebrew: ערס‎‎ `ars), or Arsim (the plural in Hebrew) is a derogatory Hebrew slang term for the Israeli stereotype of a low-class young man. The stereotype may also refer to personal effects such as flashy jewelry and clothing. A woman fitting this stereotype is an Arsit (though this usually implies masculinity in the woman), the word formed by adding the Hebrew feminine ending "it" to the Arabic word "Ars" (Arabic: عرص‎‎, ʿarṣ). Another term used for women is Freḥa (פרחה), originally a female Moroccan first name popular in the 1950s and the 1960s, during the large immigration wave from Morocco to Israel. The Ars subculture traditionally was associated with young Jews of Middle Eastern origin, but in recent years has expanded to a broader range of ethnicities. In particular, the term "Freḥa" is nowadays used in reference to intellectually shallow girls of all ethnicities, like bimbo or airhead in English.

    In Arabic the word ars has several meanings:[1]

    • A shepherd (literal meaning)
    • A pimp in general (common colloquial meaning, the "sheep" being his prostitutes). Cfr. "ro`e zonot" (literally "shepherd of whores") in Hebrew.
    • A cuckold, a man whose wife is unfaithful to him
    • A man who pimps his wife
    • A wicked or contemptible person, a "bad guy"
    • A bastard, an illegitimate child

    A long form used sometimes is arsawwat, although the Arabic plural of "Ars" is "Arsat".
    “And, furthermore, that some people have a sex life and others don’t just because some are more attractive than others. I wanted to acknowledge that if people don’t have a sex life, it’s not for some moral reason, it’s just because they’re ugly. Once you’ve said it, it sounds obvious, but I wanted to say it.” — Michel Houellebecq

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    Quote Originally Posted by NixYO View Post
    Yes lol

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    Quote Originally Posted by Semitic Duwa View Post
    This is actually a very good question as it brings us to one of the fundamental morphological traits of most Semitic and Afroasiatic languages... The most common and straightforward way of expressing possession in these languages is through a type of genitive construction more commonly known as construct state (AKA 'i9'afa/Idafa in Arabic and Smikhout in Hebrew). Simply put, the first noun (nomen regens) is the modified noun while the second (nomen rectus) is the modifier, the second is always placed in the genitive case, so as far as possession goes the first noun (possessed) is usually placed in the nominative (-un/-u), accusative (-an/-a) or genitive (-in/-i) case while the second noun (possessor) can only be placed in the genitive case (-in/-i), nothing comes between the two, adjectives are added afterwards and are placed in the nominative case.

    I'm going to give you an example using the very same phrase which puzzled you ("ibn Allah"), there's a verse of the Qur'an I know by heart which has the very same words:

    وَقَالَتِ الْيَهُودُ عُزَيْرٌ ابْنُ اللَّهِ وَقَالَتْ النَّصَارَى الْمَسِيحُ ابْنُ اللَّهِ ذَلِكَ قَوْلُهُم بِأَفْوَاهِهِمْ يُضَاهِؤُونَ قَوْلَ الَّذِينَ كَفَرُواْ مِن قَبْلُ قَاتَلَهُمُ اللَّهُ أَنَّى يُؤْفَكُونَ

    The Jews say, "Ezra is the son of Allah "; and the Christians say, "The Messiah is the son of Allah ." That is their statement from their mouths; they imitate the saying of those who disbelieved [before them]. May Allah destroy them; how are they deluded?

    -At-Tawba; 'âyat 30 (Qur'an 9:30)

    Here's the transliteration of this verse:

    wa qālati -l yahūdu ʿuzayrun ibnu -llāhi wa qālati -n naṣārā -l masiḥu -bnu -llāhi ðālika qawluhum bi'afwāhihim yuḍāhi'ūna qawla -llaðīna kafarū min qablu qātalahumu -llāhu 'annā yu'fakūna

    As you can see, ibn (son) is placed in the nominative case while Allah is placed in the genitive case, hence "ibnu -llahi". The Arabic word for "son" in Arabic is "ibn" but it is subjected to the phonetic context of the preceding noun since the [i] in ibn is under a wasla.
    Really?! So in the sentence “He ate Omar’s juicy camel”, the adjective would be in nominative and not accusative, as one would expect since “juicy” is a modifier to the direct object “camel”?
    “And, furthermore, that some people have a sex life and others don’t just because some are more attractive than others. I wanted to acknowledge that if people don’t have a sex life, it’s not for some moral reason, it’s just because they’re ugly. Once you’ve said it, it sounds obvious, but I wanted to say it.” — Michel Houellebecq

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